छत्तीसगढ़ राज्य लघु वनोपज (व्यापार एवं विकास) सहकारी संघ मर्यादित के अंतर्गत सहायक प्रबंधक (उपार्जन), सहायक प्रबंधक ( प्रक्रिया), सहायक प्रबंधक ( निर्माण), सहायक प्रबंधक ( प्रबंधक) (संविदा) भर्ती परीक्षा 2023 (LVAM23)
CG Laghu Vanopaj Vibhag Recruitment 2023 : सहायक प्रबंधक ( उपार्जन, प्रक्रिया, निर्माण एवं प्रबंधन ) के 180 संविदा पदों की स्वीकृति तथा व्यावसायिक परीक्षा मंडल के माध्यम से भर्ती दी गई है। इस हेतु छत्तीसगढ़ के मूल निवासी पात्र अभ्यर्थियों से ऑनलाइन आवेदन पत्र, छत्तीसगढ़ व्यावसायिक परीक्षा मंडल, रायपुर की वेबसाइट https://vyapam.cgstate.gov.in/ पर आमंत्रित किये जाते है। Question Answer sheet
Assistant Manager (Procurement), Assistant Manager (Process), Assistant Manager (Construction), and Assistant CARD Manager (Management)-LVAM23 Recruitment Exam 2023 Question Answer sheet
राज्य का सामान्य ज्ञान
Q1 जिला पंचायत के गठन के विषय में क्या सही नहीं है?
A. लोक सभा के ऐसे सदस्य जिनका निर्वाचन क्षेत्र पूर्णत: या अशंत: शामिल हो, जिला पंचायत के सदस्य होगें।
B. राज्य सभा के समस्त सदस्य जिनका नाम जिले की ग्राम पंचायत क्षेत्र की मतदाता सूची में आता है। जिला पंचायत के सदस्य होगें।
C. राज्य विधान सभा के सभी सदस्य जो उस जिले से निर्वाचित एवं नामित हुए है। जिला पंचायत के सदस्य होंगे।
D. जिले के सभी जनपद पंचायतों के अध्यक्ष एवं उपाध्यक्ष जिला पंचायत के नामित सदस्य होगें।
Q2 “दाई खेलन दे” (काव्य संग्रह) के रचनाकार कौन है?
A. निरुपमा शर्मा
B. डॉ. सत्यभामा आडिल
C. गीता शर्मा
D. डॉ. शैल चन्द्रा
Q3. ‘सुराजी ग्राम योजना’ कब और कहाँ शुरू की गई थी?
A. 12 जनवरी 2019, बस्तर
B. 21फरवरी 2019, दुर्ग
C. 2 अक्टूबर 2019, रायपुर
D. 10 जुलाई 2019, अंबिकापुर
Q4. पंचायत सदस्यों को वापस बुलाने या प्रत्यावर्तित (Recall) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में क्या असत्य है?
A. इसके लिए ग्राम पंचायत के कुल सदस्यों का कम से कम 1/3 सदस्यों द्वारा हस्ताक्षर कर सक्षम अधिकारी को देगें।
B. पद धारण करने की तारीख से 2 – वर्ष का 2 कार्यकाल पूर्ण होने के बाद ही लाया जा सकता है।
C, यदि उपचुनाव में निर्वाचित सरपंच का आधा कार्यकाल पूरा न हो गया हो, यह प्रक्रिया नही लाई जा सकती।
D. यदि कार्यकाल 6 माह शेष बचा हो तो यह प्रक्रिया नही लाई जा सकती।
Q5. इंद्रावती नदी किस जिले से छत्तीसगढ़ में प्रवेश करती है?
A. बस्तर जिला
B. कोंडागाँव जिला
C. दंतेवाड़ा जिला
D. सुकमा जिला
Q6. महानदी की सबसे लंबी सहायक नदी कौन सी है?
A. अरपा नदी
B. मांड नदी
C. शिवनाथ नदी
D. पैरी नदी
Q7. उद्यानिकी फसलों की उत्पादकता (2020-21 ) ( मी. टन प्रति हे.) के आधार पर चयन करे-
A. सब्जी > फल > पुष्प > औषध एवं फसल > मसाला
B. फल > सब्जी > औषधी एवं सुगंधित फसल > मसाला > > पुष्प
C. मसाला > औषधी एवं सुगंधित फसल > फल > सब्जी > पुष्प
D. पुष्प > सब्जी > फल > मसाला > औषधी एवं एवं सुगंधित फसल
Q8. बिसरामपुर किस लिए प्रसिध्द है?
A. कोयला खानें
B. सोने की खानें
C. बॉक्साइट
D. हीरे की खदानें
Q9 .कांकेर जिले कि अरी डोंगारी सीमाओं में लौह अयस्क का उत्पादन होता है। यह सीमाऐं किस तहसील में स्थित है?
A. भानुप्रतापपुर
B. नरहरपुर
C. अंतागढ
D. कांकेर
Q10. “भया के मोटरी” किसकी रचना है?
A. श्यामलाल चतुर्वेदी
B. विनय कुमार पाठक
C. मुकुटधर पाण्डेय
D. बंशीधर पाण्डेय
Q11. तमोर पिंगला वन्यजीव अभ्यारण्य किस जिले में स्थित है?
A. सूरजपुर जिला
B. सरगुजा जिला
C. सुकमा जिला
D. उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं
Q12. निम्नलिखित जनजातियों में से किसे छत्तीसगढ़ का (आदिम जनजातीय समूह) माना जाता है?
A. बैगा
B. कंवर
C. हलबा
D. गोंड़
Q13. मराठा काल में एकमात्र जगह जहां की जमींदारी जब्त की गयी-
A. कोरबा
B. खैरागढ़
C.. सरगुजा.
D. कांकेर
Q14. निम्नलिखित में से किस जिले में जोगीमारा गुफाएं स्थित है?
A. जशपुर
B. सरगुजा
C. बिलासपुर
D. कवर्धा
Q15. कंवर जनजाती में सुक क्या है?
A. दहेज
B. दूल्हे की क
C. A और B दोनों
D. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q16. छत्तीसगढ़ राज्य सरकार द्वारा खरीफ विपणन वर्ष 2022-23 में किस दलहन फसल का समर्थन मूल्य पर उपार्जन किया जायेगा?
A. अरहर
B. मूंग
C. उड़द
D. उपरोक्त सभी
Q17. भारत वन स्थिती रिपोर्ट 2021 (IFSR) के अनुसार छत्तीसगढ़ राज्य क्या रिकॉर्ड फारेस्ट वन कितना है?
A. 59772km 2
B. 55972km 2
C. 59816km 2
D. 58916km²
Q18. अमृतधारा जलप्रपात किस नदी से निकलता है?
A. हसदेव नदी
B. पैरी नदी
C. सबरी नदी
D. अरपा नदी
Q19. छत्तीसगढ़ मे हुए प्रथम मजदूर आन्दोलन के संबंध में क्या सही नही है?
A. मजदूरों के कार्य की अवधि 8 घण्टे निर्धारित
B. पुरुषों और महिलाओं की मजदूरी एक समान निर्धारित की जायें।
C. काम करने की स्थिती में सुधार की जायें।
D. मजदूरों के वेतन बढ़ाए जायें |
Q20. कंवर लोग निम्नलिखित में से किस देवता की पूजा करते है?
A. दूल्हा देव
B. बहन देव
C. शिकार देव
D. उपरोक्त सभी
Part 2- भाषा (हिन्दी, अंग्रेजी एवं छत्तीसग सामान्य हिन्दी)
Language (Hindi, English and Chhattisgarhi) General Hindi
Q1. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी पूर्वी हिन्दी की बोल नही है?
A. बघेली
B. खड़ीबोली
C. अवधी
D. छत्तीसगढ़ी
Q2. ‘पर्वत’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है-
A. भूधर
B. रत्नाकर
C. अम्बर
D. जलधर
Q3. निम्न शब्दों में शुध्द शब्द है-
A. प्रामाणिक
B. पूज्यनीय
C. नछत्र
D. कवियित्री
Q4. निम्न शब्दों में तद्भव है-
A. आम्र
B. डोंगा
C. अनि
D. फूल
Q5. ‘अध्यक्ष’ शब्द में कौन-सा उपसर्ग लगा है?
A. अभि
B. अधि
C. अति
D. अप
Q6. हिन्दी में ऐसे अनेक शब्द प्रयुक्त होते हैं, जिनका उच्चारण मात्रा या वर्ण के हल्के हेर फेर के सिवा प्राय: समान होते है, किन्तु अर्थ में भिन्नता होती है, उसे कहते हैं-
A. तत्सम शब्द
B. संकर शब्द
C. विलोम शब्द
D. समोच्चरितप्राय भिन्नार्थक शब्द
Q7. ‘जो लोक में संभव न हो’ वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कौन सा है?
A. लौकिक
C. अदृश्य
B. अलौकिक
D. अपारदर्शक
Q8. निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से शुध्द वाक्य है-
A. यह कविता अनेक भाव प्रकट करती है।
B. मैं गाने का कसरत कर रहा हूँ।
C. एक प्रलयी प्रचण्ड हुंकार हुआ।
D. यह काम आप पर निर्भर करता है।
Q9. उत्तर मध्यकाल का दूसरा नाम है-
A. वीरगाथाकाल
B. रीतिकाल
C. आधुनिक काल
D. भक्तिकाल
Q10. ‘गवैया’ शब्द में कौन-सा प्रत्यय लगा है?
A. ऐया
B. वैया
C. इया
D. आ
Q11. ‘गंगोर्मि’ में प्रयुक्त संधि का नाम है-
A. वृध्दि स्वर संधि
B. दीर्घ स्वर संधि
C. यण- स्वर संधि
D. गुण स्वर संधि
Q12. ‘अनुग्रह’ का विलोम शब्द है-
A. उपेक्षा
B. दुराग्रह
C. विग्रह
D. अनाग्रह
Q13. ‘जितेन्द्रिय’ में कौन सा समास है?-
A. तत्पुरुष
B. अव्ययीभाव
C. बहुब्रीहि
D. कर्मधारय
Q14. ‘आँख का अंधा नाम नयनसुख’ लोकोक्ति का अ
A. मूर्खो में कुछ पढ़ा-लिखा व्यक्ति
B. गुण के विरूध्द नाम होना
C. अपनी बुराई नहीं दिखती
D. मूर्ख धनवान
Q15. ‘अक्ल पर पत्थर पड़ना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है-
A. शर्मिंदा होना
B. मूर्ख बनना
C. संकट मोल लेना
D. बुद्धि भ्रष्ट होना
(A)-1-Solid Mechanics
1. According to the maximum shear stress failure criterion, yielding in material occurs when-
A. Maximum shear stress = 1/2 yield stress
B. Maximum shear stress = (√2) yield stress
C. Maximum shear stress = (√3) yield stress
D. Maximum shear stress = 2 yield stress
2. For a circular column having its end hinged, the slenderness ratio is 160. The 1/d ratio of the column is-
A. 80
B. 57
C. 40
D. 20
3. A hollow circular column of internal diameter ‘d’ and external diameter ‘1.5d’ is subjected to compressive load. The maximum distance of the point of application of load from the centre for no tension is-
A. d/8
B. 13d/48
C. d/4
D. 13d/96
4. The radius of Mohr’s circle is zero when the state of stress is such that
A. Shear stress is zero
B. There is pure shear
C. There is no shear stress but identical stresses in two mutually
D. There is no shear stress but equal direct stresses, opposite in nature, in two mutually perpendicular directions
5. In a beam of solid circular cross-sect what is the ratio of the maximum shear stress to the average shear stress?
A 3/4
B 4/3
C 3/2
D 2/3
6. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Shear force is the first derivative of the bending moment
B. Shear force is the first derivative of the intensity of the load
C. Load intensity on a beam is the first derivative of the bending moment
D. Bending moment is the first derivative of shear force.
7.Elastic limit is the point-
A. Up to which stress is proportional to strain
B At which elongation takes place without application of additional load
C. Up to which if the load is removed, original volume and shape are regained
D. At which toughness is maximum
(A)-2-Structural Analysis
8.The stiffness method in Structural Analysis is also known as-
A. Unit load method
B. Displacement method
C. Force method
D. Consistent deformation method
9. The fixed support in the real beam becomes in the conjugate beam at-
A. Fixed support
B. Hinged support
C. Roller support
D. Free end
10. The deflection at the free end of a cantilever of a rectangular cross-section due to certain loading is 0.8 cm. If the depth of the section is doubled keeping the width the same, then the deflection at the free end due to the same loading will be-
A. 0.1 cm
B. 0.4 cm
C. 0.8 cm
D. 1.6 cm
11. Column analogy method is applicable to-
A. Determinate structures
B. Continuous beams
C. Fixed beams and single-storey frames
D. Multi-storey frames
12. Which are of the following is true example of statically determinate beam?
A. Both the ends are fixed
B. One end is fixed and the other end is simply supported
C. The beam overhangs over two supports
D. The beam is supported on three supports
13. What is the area of influence line diagram for the reaction at the hinged end of a uniform propped cantilever beam of span L?
A. L/4
B. L/2
C. L/8%
D. 3L/ 8
(A)-3-Design of RCC & Prestress Structures
14. For MS bar, percentage elongation at failure is
A. 14%
B. 18%
C. 21%
D. 23%
15. In RC beam, the minimum area of tension reinforcement does not depend on:
A Width of cross-section
B. Effective depth of cross-section
C. Grade of steel
D. Grade of concrete
16. As per codal provisions, short term modulus of elasticity of concrete for M25 grade is:
A. 2.5 MPa
B. 25 MPa
C. 2500 MPa
D. 25000 MPa
17. The critical section for shear in suspended RC beams is:
A. At the face of the support
B. At a distance d from the face of suppor
C. Within a distance 2d from the face of support
D. At centre of support
18. As per the stress-strain curve of concrete in bending compression, the design stress in concrete at 0.002 strain is:
A. 0.36fck
B. 0.42fck
C. 0.45fck
D. 0.70fck
19. Effect of Creep is:
A. Decrease in deflection of beam and slab
B. Increase in deflection of beam and slab
C. No loss in prestress
D. Sudden transfer of load fromconcrete to reinforcing steel
20. Generally, modulus of elasticity of steel used for design of Prestress concrete structures compared to design of RC structure is:
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. None of these
21. In over reinforced section:
A. Stress in concrete is less than steel
B. Concrete reaches its allowable strength first
C. Steel reaches its allowable strength first
D. strain in conccrete is same as steel
22. Limit state of collapse dose not include
A. Flexure
B. Compression
C. Tension
D. Torsion
(A)-4-Design of Steel Structures
23. Prying force can be reduced by-
- Increasing the end distance
- Decreasing the end distance
- Increasing the distance of the bolt from half the root radius for a rolled section
of the above
A. Only 1 is correct
B. Only 3 is correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 2 and 3 are correct
24. The function of sway bracing is to-
A. Stiffen the structure laterally
B. To maintain a rectangular cross section
C. To control the drift
D. All of the above
25. To equal angles form a compound column cross section as shown in fig.
Among these, those which have the same axial compression load carrying capacity could include-
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
26. As per IS. 800 in the case of plate girder with vertical and horizontal stiffness, the greater and lesser unsupported clear dimension of a web panel in terms of web thickness tw should not exceed respectively-
A. 180t, and 85tw
B. 2701, and 180tw
C. 270t, and 200tw
D. 400 and 250tw
27. The necking of the steel section during tensile test takes place-
A. at yield stress
B. in strain hardening range
C. after reaching ultimate tensile stress
D. at plastic yield
28. A fixed beam of variable cross section is shown in fig. At the point of collapse the value of load W will be-
A 10Mp/L
B. 15Mp/L
C. 20Mp/L
D. 25Mp/L
29. A steel plate is 30 cm wide and 10 mm thick. If the diameter of the bolt hole is 20 mm, the net section area of the plate is-
A. 18.00cm²
B. 280cm²
C. 28.00cm²
D. 32.42cm²
(A)-5-Building Materials, Construction Practices, Planning & Management
30. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about wooden lintels?
A. Wooden lintels cannot support heavy loads
B. Wooden lintels are widely used in construction
C. Wooden lintels are not much used
D. Wooden lintels are not fire proof
31. The number of steps in a single flight should not be more than-
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 18
32.Thickness of plastering is usually:
A. 12 mm
B. 25 mm
C. 40 mm
D. 6 mm
33. Orientation of building means-
A. Originating the building from other building
B. Fixing the direction of the building for maximum benefit from sun, air & nature
C. Fixing the building at the centre of site/plot
D. None of the above
34. Concrete is a/an material.
A. Elastic
B. Plastic
C. Brittle
D. Ductile
35. As per IS code 2386 (Part-IV) – 1983 the maximum abrasion value of the coarse aggregate in concrete for wearing surfaces is-
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%
36. Which of the following is NOT considered in unit rate analysis of an item of a building?
A. Contingency
B. Present rate of skilled Labour
C. Contractor’s profit
D. Present rate of materials
37. The surface of painting is measured in-
A. cu.ft
B. Tonnes
C. sq.m.
D. cu.m
(A)-6-Fluid Mechanics
38. The separation of boundary layer occurs
when-
A. The flow is accelerated past a boundary
B. The boundary layer comes to rest
C. Any adverse pressure is encountered
D. None of above
39. A centrifugal pump is superior to a reciprocating pump because-
A. It is a high-speed pump
B. It is more economical
C. It gives a smooth flow
D. All of above
40. A metal block is thrown into a deep lake. As it sinks deeper in water, the buoyant force acting on it-
A. Increases
B. Remains the same
C. Decreases
D. None of above
41. In a fully developed pipe flow-
A. Pressure gradient is greater than wall shear stress
B. Inertia force balances the wall shear stress
C. Pressure gradient balances the wall shear stress only and has a constant value
D. None of above
42. For solving the network problems of pipes, a necessary condition is-
A. Continuity Equation
B. Energy Equation
C. Darcy – Weisbach Equation
D. All of above
43. The flow can be uniform in a-
A. Non-prismatic channel
B. Wide rectangular channel
C. Horizontal trapezoidal channel
D. Frictionless rectangular channel
44. In a rotational flow-
A. The net rotation of fluid particles about their mass centers remains zero
B. The Laplace equation is satisfied
C. The vorticity is not zero
D. All of above
(4)-7-Hydroingy & Water Resources Engineering
45. Hydraulic routing method make use of –
A. Energy Equation only
B. Commury Equation only
C. Momentum Equation only
D. Both continuity and momentum
46. Asmometer is used to measure-
A. Evaporation
B. Transpiration
C. Evapotranspiration
D. All of above
47. The statement that “the ordinate of the direct runoff hydrographs of a common base period are directly proportional to the volumes of runoff represented by the respective hydrographs” is known as-
A. Principle of linearity
B. Principle of time invariance
C Principle of uniformity
D None of above
48. The subsurface runoff is also known as-
A. Interflow
B. Storm seepage
C. Secondary base flow
D. All of above
49. Any Cyclic trend present in the rainfall data can be ascertained from-
A. Depth-area-duration Curve
B. Moving Average Curve
C. Intensity-Duration Curve
D. Double Mass Curve
50. Water existing in capillary zone is a part of-
A. Phreatic water
B. Ground water
C. Gravity water
D. Vadose water
51. A structure used to dam up a stream or a river over which the water flows is called-
A. Orifice
B. Notch
C. Weir
D. None of above
(A)-8-Environmental Engineering
52. The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular pattern is-
A. Grid iron system
B. Dead-end system
C. Ring system
D. Radial system
53. The population of a town in three consecutive decades are 50,000, 70,000, and 84,000 respectively. The population of the town in the fourth consecutive decade according to Arithmetic increase method is-
A. 95000
B. 98000
C. 101000
D. 109200
54. The ratio of 5-day BOD to ultimate BOD is about-
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 3/4
D. 1.0
55. The per capita consumption of a locality is affected by:
i) Climatic conditions
ii) Quality of water
iii) Distribution pressure
The correct answer is-
A. Only (i)
B. Both (i) and (ii)
C. Both (i) and (iii)
D. All (i), (ii), (iii)
56. Fluctuating noise levels from various sources at a place over a period of time can be represented by a constant value over that entire time period, by a value of sound, known as-
A Equivalent noise level
B. Average noise level
C. Mean noise level
D. None of the above
57. Standard EDTA solution is used to determine the-
A. Hardness in water
B. Turbidity in water
C Dissolved oxygen in water
D. Residual chlorine in water
58. The RSPM is also designated as-
A. PM 25
B. PM 10
C. PM 25
D. None of them
59. If Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of a town is 2000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 50 gm, then population equivalent of town is-
A. 2000
B. 4000
C. 10000
D. 40000
(A)-9-Geotechnical Engineering
60. Flow net is used for determination of-
A. Seepage pressure
B. Quantity of seepage
C. Exit gradient
D. All of the above
61. For a soil sample percentage air voids (n = 40%), water content (W = 30%) and specific gravity (G= 2.67), what will be its dry density Ya =?
A. 1.5gm/cm³
B. 0.89gm/cm³
C. 2.0gm/cm³
D. 2.67gm/cm³
62. Why is the middle third rule followed while analyzing the foundation of a gravity dam?
A. to avoid excessive compressive stresses
B. to avoid tensile stress in foundation
C. to avoid shear stress in foundation
D. None of the above
63. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5 m, specific gravity 2.67 and void ratio 0.67 is equal to-
A. 1.0 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 0.5 m
D. 0.2m
64. End-bearing piles are suitable when driven through soft strata and rest on-
A. Hard surface
B. Stable surface
C. Soft surface
D. Semi liquid surface
65. The rise of the water table below the foundation influences the bearing mainly by reducing capacity of soil –
A. Cohesion and effective angle of shearing resistance
B. Cohesion and effective unit weight of soil
C. Effective angle of shearing resistance
D. Effective unit weight of soil and effective angle of shearing resistance
66.Which of the following soils has more plasticity index?
A. Sand
B. Silt
C. Clay
D. Gravel
67. Maximum dry density upto which any soil can be compacted depends upon-
A. Moisture content only
B. Amount of compaction energy only
C. Both moisture content and amount of compaction energy
D. None of the above
(A)-10-Surveying & Transportation Engineering
68. Select the correct statement related to flexible pavement design-
A. More the value of GI, the less thickness of pavement will be required.
B. More the value of CBR, more thickness of pavement will be required.
C. Minimum and maximum values of GI can be 0 and 20 respectively.
D. None of the above
69. For a B.G. track of length 2.6 km, the number of sleepers required, with a sleeper density of (M+7) per rail length will be-
A. 2600
B. 4000
C. 3900
D. 400
70. Remote sensing techniques make use of which waves for sensing the object?
A. Electric waves
B. Sound waves
C. Electromagnetic waves
D. None of above
71. The Following observations of an angle, P, are made as-
P=30°28’40”
3P= 91°25’30”
4P=121°54’30”
The most probable value of angle, P, is
A 30° 28′ 38.12″
B. 38° 28’30”
C. 30° 28’37”
D. 30°29’37.60″
72. When semaphore and water are installed on the same post, the stop indication is given when
A. Both arms are horizontal
B. Semaphore arm lowered but warner arm horizontal
C. Both semaphore and warner arm lowered
D. All of the above
73. The mechanical extra widening required for pavement of width 10.5 m on a horizontal curve of radius ‘R’ m and where’ is the length of wheel base of vehicle in meters-
A. l2/2R
B. 2l2/ 3R
C.l2/R
D. 3l2/ 2R
74. In design of a runway length of an airport the usual corrections applied are-
A. For elevation and temperature of the location only
B. For temperature of the location only
C. For elevation, temperature and gradient of the locality
D. For elevation, temperature, gradient and magnetic bearing of the location
75. If the RL of BM taken was 100.00 m, the Back sight was 1.215 m and the foresight was 1.870 m, the RL of the forward station will be-
A. 100.345 m
B. 99.345 m
C. 100.655 m
D. 101.870 m